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2021 Jul security+ sy0-401 practice exam:
Q561. On a train, an individual is watching a proprietary video on Joe's laptop without his knowledge. Which of the following does this describe?
A. Tailgating
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Interference
D. Illegal downloading
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q562. The security officer is preparing a read-only USB stick with a document of important personal phone numbers, vendor contacts, an MD5 program, and other tools to provide to employees. At which of the following points in an incident should the officer instruct employees to use this information?
A. Business Impact Analysis
B. First Responder
C. Damage and Loss Control
D. Contingency Planning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incident response procedures involves: Preparation; Incident identification; Escalation and notification; Mitigation steps; Lessons learned; Reporting; Recover/reconstitution procedures; First responder; Incident isolation (Quarantine; Device removal); Data breach; Damage and loss control. In this scenario the security officer is carrying out an incident response measure that will address and be of benefit to those in the vanguard, i.e. the employees and they are the first responders.
Q563. Matt, a developer, recently attended a workshop on a new application. The developer installs the new application on a production system to test the functionality. Which of the following is MOST likely affected?
A. Application design
B. Application security
C. Initial baseline configuration
D. Management of interfaces
Answer: C
Explanation:
The initial baseline configuration of a computer system is an agreed configuration for the computer. For example, the initial baseline configuration will list what operating system he computer will run, what software applications and patches will be installed and what configuration settings should be applied to the system. In this question, we are installing a new software application on a server. After the installation of the software, the “configuration” of the server (installed software, settings etc) is now different from the initial baseline configuration.
Q564. A security engineer is given new application extensions each month that need to be secured prior to implementation. They do not want the new extensions to invalidate or interfere with existing application security. Additionally, the engineer wants to ensure that the new requirements are approved by the appropriate personnel. Which of the following should be in place to meet these two goals? (Select TWO).
A. Patch Audit Policy
B. Change Control Policy
C. Incident Management Policy
D. Regression Testing Policy
E. Escalation Policy
F. Application Audit Policy
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A backout (regression testing) is a reversion from a change that had negative consequences. It could be, for example, that everything was working fi ne until you installed a service pack on a production machine, and then services that were normally available were no longer accessible. The backout, in this instance, would revert the system to the state that it was in before the service pack was applied. Backout plans can include uninstalling service packs, hotfi xes, and patches, but they can also include reversing a migration and using previous firmware. A key component to creating such a plan is identifying what events will trigger your implementing the backout. A change control policy refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets in the event of changes occurring.
Q565. Ann works at a small company and she is concerned that there is no oversight in the finance department; specifically, that Joe writes, signs and distributes paycheques, as well as other expenditures. Which of the following controls can she implement to address this concern?
A. Mandatory vacations
B. Time of day restrictions
C. Least privilege
D. Separation of duties
Answer: D
Explanation:
Separation of duties divides administrator or privileged tasks into separate groupings, which in turn, is individually assigned to unique administrators. This helps in fraud prevention, error reduction, as well as conflict of interest prevention. For example, those who configure security should not be the same people who test security. In this case, Joe should not be allowed to write and sign paycheques.
Leading comptia security+ get certified get ahead sy0-401 study guide download:
Q566. Which of the following controls can be implemented together to prevent data loss in the event of theft of a mobile device storing sensitive information? (Select TWO).
A. Full device encryption
B. Screen locks
C. GPS
D. Asset tracking
E. Inventory control
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A: Device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen.
B: Screen locks are a security feature that requires the user to enter a PIN or a password after a short period of inactivity before they can access the system again. This feature ensures that if your device is left unattended or is lost or stolen, it will be difficult for anyone else to access your data or applications.
Q567. When confidentiality is the primary concern, and a secure channel for key exchange is not available, which of the following should be used for transmitting company documents?
A. Digital Signature
B. Symmetric
C. Asymmetric
D. Hashing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q568. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate to secure an existing SCADA system by preventing connections from unauthorized networks?
A. Implement a HIDS to protect the SCADA system
B. Implement a Layer 2 switch to access the SCADA system
C. Implement a firewall to protect the SCADA system
D. Implement a NIDS to protect the SCADA system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q569. Which of the following attacks allows access to contact lists on cellular phones?
A. War chalking
B. Blue jacking
C. Packet sniffing
D. Bluesnarfing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Bluesnarfing is the theft of information from a wireless device through a Bluetooth connection. Bluetooth is a high-speed but very short-range wireless technology for exchanging data between desktop and mobile computers, personal digital assistants (PDAs), and other devices. By exploiting a vulnerability in the way Bluetooth is implemented on a mobile phone, an attacker can access information -- such as the user's calendar, contact list and e-mail and text messages --without leaving any evidence of the attack. Other devices that use Bluetooth, such as laptop computers, may also be vulnerable, although to a lesser extent, by virtue of their more complex systems. Operating in invisible mode protects some devices, but others are vulnerable as long as Bluetooth is enabled.
Q570. Sara, a security analyst, is trying to prove to management what costs they could incur if their customer database was breached. This database contains 250 records with PII. Studies show that the cost per record for a breach is $300. The likelihood that their database would be breached in the next year is only 5%. Which of the following is the ALE that Sara should report to management for a security breach?
A. $1,500
B. $3,750
C. $15,000
D. $75,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
SLE × ARO = ALE, where SLE is equal to asset value (AV) times exposure factor (EF); and ARO
is the annualized rate of occurrence.
SLE = 250 x $300; ARO = 5%
$75000 x 0.05 = $3750