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2021 Oct security+ sy0-401 cheat sheet:
Q471. Joe, the system administrator, is performing an overnight system refresh of hundreds of user computers. The refresh has a strict timeframe and must have zero downtime during business hours. Which of the following should Joe take into consideration?
A. A disk-based image of every computer as they are being replaced.
B. A plan that skips every other replaced computer to limit the area of affected users.
C. An offsite contingency server farm that can act as a warm site should any issues appear.
D. A back-out strategy planned out anticipating any unforeseen problems that may arise.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A backout is a reversion from a change that had negative consequences. It could be, for example, that everything was working fine until you installed a service pack on a production machine, and then services that were normally available were no longer accessible. The backout, in this instance, would revert the system to the state that it was in before the service pack was applied. Backout plans can include uninstalling service packs, hotfixes, and patches, but they can also include reversing a migration and using previous firmware. A key component to creating such a plan is identifying what events will trigger your implementing the backout.
Q472. Joe must send Ann a message and provide Ann with assurance that he was the actual sender. Which of the following will Joe need to use to BEST accomplish the objective?
A. A pre-shared private key
B. His private key
C. Ann's public key
D. His public key
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q473. Which of the following hardware based encryption devices is used as a part of multi-factor authentication to access a secured computing system?
A. Database encryption
B. USB encryption
C. Whole disk encryption
D. TPM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based encryption solution that is embedded in the system’s motherboard and is enabled or disable in BIOS. It helps with hash key generation and stores cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates.
Q474. To ensure proper evidence collection, which of the following steps should be performed FIRST?
A. Take hashes from the live system
B. Review logs
C. Capture the system image
D. Copy all compromised files
Answer: C
Explanation:
Capturing an image of the operating system in its exploited state can be helpful in revisiting the issue after the fact to learn more about it. This is essential since the collection of evidence process may result in some mishandling and changing the exploited state.
Q475. A network administrator has been tasked with securing the WLAN. Which of the following cryptographic products would be used to provide the MOST secure environment for the WLAN?
A. WPA2 CCMP
B. WPA
C. WPA with MAC filtering
D. WPA2 TKIP
Answer: A
Explanation:
CCMP is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard and is much more secure than the WEP protocol and TKIP protocol of WPA. CCMP provides the following security services: Data confidentiality; ensures only authorized parties can access the information Authentication; provides proof of genuineness of the user Access control in conjunction with layer management
Because CCMP is a block cipher mode using a 128-bit key, it is secure against attacks to the 264 steps of operation.
Updated security+ sy0-401 cheat sheet:
Q476. A periodic update that corrects problems in one version of a product is called a A. Hotfix
B. Overhaul
C. Service pack
D. Security update
Answer: C
Explanation:
A service pack is a collection of updates and hotfixes that address a number of software issues, as well as new software features. It is released periodically by the vendor.
Q477. A security administrator has been tasked with setting up a new internal wireless network that must use end to end TLS. Which of the following may be used to meet this objective?
A. WPA
B. HTTPS
C. WEP
D. WPA 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) was intended to provide security that’s equivalent to that on a wired network, and it implements elements of the 802.11i standard. In April 2010, the Wi-Fi Alliance announced the inclusion of additional Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types to its certification programs for WPA- and WPA2- Enterprise certification programs. EAP-TLS is included in this certification program. Note: Although WPA mandates the use of TKIP, WPA2 requires Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP). CCMP uses 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. With the larger initialization vector, it increases the difficulty in cracking and minimizes the risk of a replay attack.
Q478. A company would like to take electronic orders from a partner; however, they are concerned that a non-authorized person may send an order. The legal department asks if there is a solution that provides non-repudiation. Which of the following would meet the requirements of this scenario?
A. Encryption
B. Digital signatures
C. Steganography
D. Hashing
E. Perfect forward secrecy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q479. To protect corporate data on removable media, a security policy should mandate that all removable devices use which of the following?
A. Full disk encryption
B. Application isolation
C. Digital rights management
D. Data execution prevention
Answer: A
Explanation:
Full-disk encryption encrypts the data on the hard drive of the device or on a removable drive. This feature ensures that the data on the device or removable drive cannot be accessed in a useable form should it be stolen.
Q480. An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes to combine the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Unified Threat Management
B. Virtual Private Network
C. Single sign on
D. Role-based management
Answer: A
Explanation:
When you combine a firewall with other abilities (intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc.), what used to be called an all-in-one appliance is now known as a unified threat management (UTM) system. The advantages of combining everything into one include a reduced learning curve (you only have one product to learn), a single vendor to deal with, and—typically—reduced complexity.