★ Pass on Your First TRY ★ 100% Money Back Guarantee ★ Realistic Practice Exam Questions
Free Instant Download NEW SY0-401 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE):
Available on:
https://www.certleader.com/SY0-401-dumps.html
Any CompTIA SY0-401 assessment might be absorbed during Language. One would be capable of restore the longer term once moving this analyze. The test includes a advanced for issues and therefore quality takers should spend ample in time assessment preparation. There are many SY0-401 examine guidelines that makes your assessment preparation easier. These types of might contain numerous SY0-401 answers and questions that may include in depth reason behind the questions. As a result a individuals could be granted a superb illustration showing this issue make a difference. There are many CompTIA SY0-401 examine products in the market and therefore a individuals must be watchful more than enough to find the appropriate examine fabric.
2021 Nov jk0-022 vs sy0-401:
Q731. Ann a technician received a spear-phishing email asking her to update her personal information by clicking the link within the body of the email. Which of the following type of training would prevent Ann and other employees from becoming victims to such attacks?
A. User Awareness
B. Acceptable Use Policy
C. Personal Identifiable Information
D. Information Sharing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Personally identifiable information (PII) is a catchall for any data that can be used to uniquely identify an individual. This data can be anything from the person’s name to a fingerprint (think biometrics), credit card number, or patient record. Employees should be made aware of this type of attack by means of training.
Q732. Which of the following can only be mitigated through the use of technical controls rather that user security training?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Zero-day
C. Vishing
D. Trojans
Answer: B
Explanation:
A zero day vulnerability is an unknown vulnerability in a software application. This cannot be prevented by user security training. A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.
Q733. An achievement in providing worldwide Internet security was the signing of certificates associated with which of the following protocols?
A. TCP/IP
B. SSL
C. SCP
D. SSH
Answer: B
Explanation:
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is used for establishing an encrypted link between two computers, typically a web server and a browser. SSL is used to enable sensitive information such as login credentials and credit card numbers to be transmitted securely.
Q734. Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model?
A. Packet Filter Firewall
B. Stateful Firewall
C. Proxy Firewall
D. Application Firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.
Q735. Ann, the network administrator, is receiving reports regarding a particular wireless network in the building. The network was implemented for specific machines issued to the developer department, but the developers are stating that they are having connection issues as well as slow bandwidth. Reviewing the wireless router's logs, she sees that devices not belonging to the developers are connecting to the access point. Which of the following would BEST alleviate the developer's reports?
A. Configure the router so that wireless access is based upon the connecting device's hardware address.
B. Modify the connection's encryption method so that it is using WEP instead of WPA2.
C. Implement connections via secure tunnel with additional software on the developer's computers.
D. Configure the router so that its name is not visible to devices scanning for wireless networks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Updated comptia security+ sy0-401 cert guide:
Q736. Which of the following cryptographic related browser settings allows an organization to communicate securely?
A. SSL 3.0/TLS 1.0
B. 3DES
C. Trusted Sites
D. HMAC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is used to establish a secure communication connection between two TCP-based machines. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a security protocol that expands upon SSL. Many industry analysts predict that TLS will replace SSL in the future. TLS 1.0 was first defined in RFC 2246 in January 1999 as an upgrade of SSL Version 3.0. As of February 2015, the latest versions of all major web browsers support TLS 1.0, 1.1, and 1.2, have them enabled by default.
Q737. An administrator connects VoIP phones to the same switch as the network PCs and printers. Which of the following would provide the BEST logical separation of these three device types while still allowing traffic between them via ACL?
A. Create three VLANs on the switch connected to a router
B. Define three subnets, configure each device to use their own dedicated IP address range, and then connect the network to a router
C. Install a firewall and connect it to the switch
D. Install a firewall and connect it to a dedicated switch for each device type
Answer: A
Explanation:
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
Q738. A network administrator, Joe, arrives at his new job to find that none of the users have changed their network passwords since they were initially hired. Joe wants to have everyone change their passwords immediately. Which of the following policies should be enforced to initiate a password change?
A. Password expiration
B. Password reuse
C. Password recovery
D. Password disablement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q739. Digital Signatures provide which of the following?
A. Confidentiality
B. Authorization
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
E. Availability
Answer: C
Explanation:
A digital signature is similar in function to a standard signature on a document. It validates the integrity of the message and the sender.
Q740. Matt, a security administrator, wants to configure all the switches and routers in the network in order to securely monitor their status. Which of the following protocols would he need to configure on each device?
A. SMTP
B. SNMPv3
C. IPSec
D. SNMP
Answer: B
Explanation: Currently, SNMP is predominantly used for monitoring and performance management. SNMPv3 defines a secure version of SNMP and also facilitates remote configuration of the SNMP entities.