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2021 Dec comptia security+ get certified get ahead sy0-401 pdf:
Q291. A network engineer is designing a secure tunneled VPN. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure?
A. IPsec
B. SFTP
C. BGP
D. PPTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) came about through a partnership between Cisco and Microsoft with the intention of providing a more secure VPN protocol. L2TP is considered to be a more secure option than PPTP, as the IPSec protocol which holds more secure encryption algorithms, is utilized in conjunction with it. It also requires a pre-shared certificate or key. L2TP’s strongest level of encryption makes use of 168 bit keys, 3 DES encryption algorithm and requires two levels of authentication. L2TP has a number of advantages in comparison to PPTP in terms of providing data integrity and authentication of origin verification designed to keep hackers from compromising the system. However, the increased overhead required to manage this elevated security means that it performs at a slower pace than PPTP.
Q292. Corporate IM presents multiple concerns to enterprise IT. Which of the following concerns should Jane, the IT security manager, ensure are under control? (Select THREE).
A. Authentication
B. Data leakage
C. Compliance
D. Malware
E. Non-repudiation
F. Network loading
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
In a joint enterprise, data may be combined from both organizations. It must be determined, in advance, who is responsible for that data and how the data backups will be managed. Data leakage, compliance and Malware issues are all issues concerning data ownership and backup which are both impacted on by corporate IM.
Q293. Digital signatures are used for ensuring which of the following items? (Select TWO).
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Non-Repudiation
D. Availability
E. Algorithm strength
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A digital signature is similar in function to a standard signature on a document. It validates the integrity of the message and the sender. The message is encrypted using the encryption system, and a second piece of information, the digital signature, is added to the message. Nonrepudiation prevents one party from denying actions that they carried out and in the electronic world nonrepudiation measures can be a two-key cryptographic system and the involvement of a third party to verify the validity. This respected third party ‘vouches’ for the individuals in the two-key system. Thus non-repudiation also impacts on integrity.
Q294. A distributed denial of service attack can BEST be described as:
A. Invalid characters being entered into a field in a database application.
B. Users attempting to input random or invalid data into fields within a web browser application.
C. Multiple computers attacking a single target in an organized attempt to deplete its resources.
D. Multiple attackers attempting to gain elevated privileges on a target system.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attack from several different computers targeting a single computer. One common method of attack involves saturating the target machine with external communications requests, so much so that it cannot respond to legitimate traffic, or responds so slowly as to be rendered essentially unavailable. Such attacks usually lead to a server overload.
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers. Such an attack is often the result of multiple compromised systems (for example a botnet) flooding the targeted system with traffic. When a server is overloaded with connections, new connections can no longer be accepted. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are that multiple machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack machines are harder to turn off than one attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track and shut down. These attacker advantages cause challenges for defense mechanisms. For example, merely purchasing more incoming bandwidth than the current volume of the attack might not help, because the attacker might be able to simply add more attack machines. This after all will end up completely crashing a website for periods of time. Malware can carry DDoS attack mechanisms; one of the better-known examples of this was MyDoom. Its DoS mechanism was triggered on a specific date and time. This type of DDoS involved hardcoding the target IP address prior to release of the malware and no further interaction was necessary to launch the attack.
Q295. A small company can only afford to buy an all-in-one wireless router/switch. The company has 3 wireless BYOD users and 2 web servers without wireless access. Which of the following should the company configure to protect the servers from the user devices? (Select TWO).
A. Deny incoming connections to the outside router interface.
B. Change the default HTTP port
C. Implement EAP-TLS to establish mutual authentication
D. Disable the physical switch ports
E. Create a server VLAN
F. Create an ACL to access the server
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
We can protect the servers from the user devices by separating them into separate VLANs (virtual local area networks).
The network device in the question is a router/switch. We can use the router to allow access from devices in one VLAN to the servers in the other VLAN. We can configure an ACL (Access Control List) on the router to determine who is able to access the server.
In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN. This is usually achieved on switch or router devices. Simpler devices only support partitioning on a port level (if at all), so sharing VLANs across devices requires running dedicated cabling for each VLAN. More sophisticated devices can mark packets through tagging, so that a single interconnect (trunk) may be used to transport data for multiple VLANs. Grouping hosts with a common set of requirements regardless of their physical location by VLAN can greatly simplify network design. A VLAN has the same attributes as a physical local area network (LAN), but it allows for end stations to be grouped together more easily even if they are not on the same network switch. The network described in this question is a DMZ, not a VLAN.
Up to date comptia security+ pdf sy0-401:
Q296. NO: 81
A company is about to release a very large patch to its customers. An administrator is required to test patch installations several times prior to distributing them to customer PCs.
Which of the following should the administrator use to test the patching process quickly and often?
A. Create an incremental backup of an unpatched PC
B. Create an image of a patched PC and replicate it to servers
C. Create a full disk image to restore after each installation
D. Create a virtualized sandbox and utilize snapshots
Answer: D
Explanation:
Sandboxing is the process of isolating a system before installing new applications or patches on it
so as to restrict the software from being able to cause harm to production systems.
Before the patch is installed, a snapshot of the system should be taken. Snapshots are backups
that can be used to quickly recover from poor updates, and errors arising from newly installed
applications.
Q297. Which of the following is BEST used to break a group of IP addresses into smaller network segments or blocks?
A. NAT
B. Virtualization
C. NAC
D. Subnetting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.
Q298. Which of the following types of application attacks would be used to identify malware causing security breaches that have NOT yet been identified by any trusted sources?
A. Zero-day
B. LDAP injection
C. XML injection
D. Directory traversal
Answer: A
Explanation:
The security breaches have NOT yet been identified. This is zero day vulnerability. A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.
Q299. A system administrator is responding to a legal order to turn over all logs from all company servers. The system administrator records the system time of all servers to ensure that:
A. HDD hashes are accurate.
B. the NTP server works properly.
C. chain of custody is preserved.
D. time offset can be calculated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
It is quite common for workstation times to be off slightly from actual time, and that can happen with servers as well. Since a forensic investigation is usually dependent on a step-by-step account of what has happened, being able to follow events in the correct time sequence is critical. Because of this, it is imperative to record the time offset on each affected machine during the investigation. One method of assisting with this is to add an entry to a log file and note the time that this was done and the time associated with it on the system.
Q300. An encrypted message is sent using PKI from Sara, a client, to a customer. Sara claims she never sent the message. Which of the following aspects of PKI BEST ensures the identity of the sender?
A. CRL
B. Non-repudiation
C. Trust models
D. Recovery agents
Answer: B
Explanation:
Nonrepudiation prevents one party from denying actions they carried out. This means that the identity of the email sender will not be repudiated.