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2021 Aug pass4sure security+ sy0-401:
Q351. A security administrator examines a network session to a compromised database server with a packet analyzer. Within the session there is a repeated series of the hex character 90 (x90).
Which of the following attack types has occurred?
A. Buffer overflow
B. Cross-site scripting
C. XML injection
D. SQL injection
Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation The hex character 90 (x90) means NOP or No Op or No Operation. In a buffer overflow attack, the buffer can be filled and overflowed with No Op commands. A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information - which has to go somewhere - can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user's files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.
Q352. While setting up a secure wireless corporate network, which of the following should Pete, an administrator, avoid implementing?
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. WEP
D. WPA
Answer: C
Explanation:
WEP is one of the more vulnerable security protocols. The only time to use WEP is when you must have compatibility with older devices that do not support new encryption.
Q353. After copying a sensitive document from his desktop to a flash drive, Joe, a user, realizes that the document is no longer encrypted. Which of the following can a security technician implement to ensure that documents stored on Joe’s desktop remain encrypted when moved to external media or other network based storage?
A. Whole disk encryption
B. Removable disk encryption
C. Database record level encryption
D. File level encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Encryption is used to ensure the confidentiality of information. In this case you should make use of file level encryption. File level encryption is a form of disk encryption where individual files or directories are encrypted by the file system itself. This is in contrast to full disk encryption where the entire partition or disk, in which the file system resides, is encrypted.
Q354. Which of the following BEST describes a SQL Injection attack?
A. The attacker attempts to have the receiving server pass information to a back-end database from which it can compromise the stored information.
B. The attacker attempts to have the receiving server run a payload using programming commonly found on web servers.
C. The attacker overwhelms a system or application, causing it to crash and bring the server down to cause an outage.
D. The attacker overwhelms a system or application, causing it to crash, and then redirects the memory address to read from a location holding the payload.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application's software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
Q355. A software development company wants to implement a digital rights management solution to protect its intellectual property. Which of the following should the company implement to enforce software digital rights?
A. Transport encryption
B. IPsec
C. Non-repudiation
D. Public key infrastructure
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Public-Key Infrastructure (PKI) is intended to offer a means of providing security to messages and transactions on a grand scale. The need for universal systems to support e-commerce, secure transactions, and information privacy is one aspect of the issues being addressed with PKI. A PKI can be used to protect software.
Avant-garde comptia security+ pdf sy0-401:
Q356. Who should be contacted FIRST in the event of a security breach?
A. Forensics analysis team
B. Internal auditors
C. Incident response team
D. Software vendors
Answer: C
Explanation:
A security breach is an incident and requires a response. The incident response team would be better equipped to deal with any incident insofar as all their procedures are concerned. Their procedures in addressing incidents are: Preparation; Incident identification; Escalation and notification; Mitigation steps; Lessons learned; Reporting; Recover/reconstitution procedures; First responder; Incident isolation (Quarantine; Device removal); Data breach; Damage and loss control.
Q357. The security team would like to gather intelligence about the types of attacks being launched against the organization. Which of the following would provide them with the MOST information?
A. Implement a honeynet
B. Perform a penetration test
C. Examine firewall logs
D. Deploy an IDS
Answer: A
Explanation:
A honeynet is a network set up with intentional vulnerabilities; its purpose is to invite attack, so that an attacker's activities and methods can be studied and that information used to increase network security. A honeynet contains one or more honey pots, which are computer systems on the Internet expressly set up to attract and "trap" people who attempt to penetrate other people's computer systems. Although the primary purpose of a honeynet is to gather information about attackers' methods and motives, the decoy network can benefit its operator in other ways, for example by diverting attackers from a real network and its resources. The Honeynet Project, a non-profit research organization dedicated to computer security and information sharing, actively promotes the deployment of honeynets. In addition to the honey pots, a honeynet usually has real applications and services so that it seems like a normal network and a worthwhile target. However, because the honeynet doesn't actually serve any authorized users, any attempt to contact the network from without is likely an illicit attempt to breach its security, and any outbound activity is likely evidence that a system has been compromised. For this reason, the suspect information is much more apparent than it would be in an actual network, where it would have to be found amidst all the legitimate network data. Applications within a honeynet are often given names such as "Finances" or "Human Services" to make them sound appealing to the attacker.
A virtual honeynet is one that, while appearing to be an entire network, resides on a single server.
Q358. One of the servers on the network stops responding due to lack of available memory. Server administrators did not have a clear definition of what action should have taken place based on the available memory. Which of the following would have BEST kept this incident from occurring?
A. Set up a protocol analyzer
B. Set up a performance baseline
C. Review the systems monitor on a monthly basis
D. Review the performance monitor on a monthly basis
Answer: B
Explanation:
A performance baseline provides the input needed to design, implement, and support a secure network. The performance baseline would define the actions that should be performed on a server that is running low on memory.
Q359. Verifying the integrity of data submitted to a computer program at or during run-time, with the intent of preventing the malicious exploitation of unintentional effects in the structure of the code, is BEST described as which of the following?
A. Output sanitization
B. Input validation
C. Application hardening
D. Fuzzing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q360. Company A submitted a bid on a contract to do work for Company B via email. Company B was insistent that the bid did not come from Company A. Which of the following would have assured that the bid was submitted by Company A?
A. Steganography
B. Hashing
C. Encryption
D. Digital Signatures
Answer: D
Explanation:
A digital signature is similar in function to a standard signature on a document. It validates the integrity of the message and the sender. The message is encrypted using the encryption system, and a second piece of information, the digital signature, is added to the message.